Re: Why Python When There Is Perl?

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Sujet : Re: Why Python When There Is Perl?
De : physfitfreak (at) *nospam* gmail.com (Physfitfreak)
Groupes : comp.os.linux.advocacy
Date : 25. Mar 2024, 00:41:23
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <utqa6m$klt3$1@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 3/24/2024 1:37 AM, rbowman wrote:
Much of what passes for Arab technology comes from Christendom locking
itself away for centuries. When they met the Muslims, not necessarily
Arabs of course, they accepted every thing that came from India at face
value not knowing the real origins.
Huh... This is a good point. I had never thought of that... Alexander did get pretty close to India! In fact he occupied the northern part of India which has recently become Pakestan.
And most of the famous Greek scientists and mathematicians' works were already under the Greek's belts at his time. So it is quite probable that Indians got heavily exposed to them.
But there are other evidences against that as well. One is, the heart of Indian math has always been its southern and central regions (Black people), not its north (Whites). Those regions, up to recent times, were still being called "Madras" which in Arabic means place of learning, or school.
Another clue is that some of these math works go even a thousand years farther back from the time of Alexander based on the form of language the works were written in.
So I'm not in a position to make any good guess as what happened and where the origin and direction of math works really were.
But a much more recent trend is clearer to see, and the gist of that is that Church in Europe didn't understand the Greeks' works and either burned them or hid them (Satan had begun his job), and those works only via translations into Arabic language, then retranslations into Latin got back to Europe a thousand years later, when by then Europeans were able to begin benefitting from them especially when such activities in Iran (and therefore in the entire Islamic world) were destroyed by Mongols soon after.
I'm saying "Iran" here because you need to note that anything done in the Arabic language at the height of Islam, were almost entirely Iranians' works, not Arabs' to the south and west of Iran of those years and north Africa. Proof of it is that when Mongols destroyed only Iran, and none of these Arabs lands had been even touched by them, the pursuit and continuation of science and math came to an immediate halt in the entire "Islamic World". If Arabs had any role in them other than speaking the same language that Iranians used for science and math, then Mongols wouldn't be able to destroy and stop such activities throughout Islamic world so thoroughly and decisively.
So humanity was lucky that at least some of the Arabic version of Greeks and Indians and Iranians works got to Spain before Mongols destroyed Iran. Cause Europe, about three centuries after that, began translating them into Latin and study and learn them.
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