Re: Why Python When There Is Perl?

On 3/21/2024 9:42 PM, Lawrence D'Oliveiro wrote:

On Thu, 21 Mar 2024 21:01:30 -0500, Physfitfreak wrote:
 

Any idea why IMP behaves like that?

 Implication: if A implies B, it doesn’t follow that B implies A. Hence B
can be true without A being true.

Be more specific or don't bother.
When we have,
A     B
--------
0 IMP 0  = 1,
begin from the left-hand side, and as you go to the right, give the meaning of everything you see in that line, expressing it in the English language, until you reach the end of the line. If something needs to be said before starting it, say it before starting it. And if something needs to be said after finishing the line, say it after finishing the line.
So turn the whole thing on that line into a comprehensive and correct logical statement in the English language.
If you don't know how to do that, or don't feel like doing that, then let me probe it myself by asking a couple of questions, easier for you to answer:
1. Does A imply B in the background, in all four cases of:
A     B
--------
0 IMP 0  = 1
0 IMP 1  = 1
1 IMP 0  = 0
1 IMP 1  = 1
?
2. When A in the first line is 0, does it mean it does not imply B, or it means it implies B but the condition that A refers to does not exist? Which one of the two meaning is the correct one (if any)?
3. When A in the third line is 1, does it mean it implies and fixes B to only be 1? Or it can imply and fix B to be 0 also?
Answer these three questions carefully, and I may be able to figure the whole thing out by myself.
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