Sujet : Re: Why Python When There Is Perl?
De : Physfitfreak (at) *nospam* gmail.com (Physfitfreak)
Groupes : comp.os.linux.advocacyDate : 23. Mar 2024, 08:46:57
Autres entêtes
Message-ID : <utltt2$1n3m4$1@solani.org>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 3/22/2024 8:40 PM, Physfitfreak wrote:
On 3/22/2024 4:04 PM, Farley Flud wrote:
On Thu, 21 Mar 2024 21:01:30 -0500, Physfitfreak wrote:
>
>
IMP
0 IMP 0 = 1
0 IMP 1 = 1
1 IMP 0 = 0
1 IMP 1 = 1
>
How can that be explained?...
>
A = "If it is raining"
>
B = "The sky is cloudy"
>
The only way that A => B is false is if A is true and B
is false.
>
>
There we go again. I spend half hour concocting a new baby problem based on that, then after posting it I see you've already given the answer for everybody here to see...
Your description and the example you brought are pretty good. Not a single one of the other COLA members would be able to post such a convincing answer. I hope this tells those idiots something about how they treat you here.
But what if the implication is based on "Trump doesn't pay his taxes" being always true? We'll then have,
A = "If you pay your taxes"
B = "You are not Trump"
Now we'll get:
A.....B
-------
0 IMP 0 = 0
0 IMP 1 = 0
1 IMP 0 = 0
1 IMP 1 = 1
and the results different from the example you gave. No? Isn't an IMP relation supposed to have only one 0 and the rest 1's? How come now we have the opposite of that?
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