Re: I just fixed the loophole of the Gettier cases with mt new notion of {linguistic truth}

On 9/11/2024 2:46 AM, Mikko wrote:

On 2024-09-10 13:46:59 +0000, olcott said:
 

On 9/10/2024 3:43 AM, Mikko wrote:

On 2024-09-09 13:03:54 +0000, olcott said:
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On 9/9/2024 4:11 AM, Mikko wrote:

On 2024-09-08 13:24:56 +0000, olcott said:
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On 9/8/2024 4:17 AM, Mikko wrote:

On 2024-09-07 13:54:47 +0000, olcott said:
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On 9/7/2024 3:09 AM, Mikko wrote:

On 2024-09-06 11:17:53 +0000, olcott said:
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On 9/6/2024 5:39 AM, Mikko wrote:

On 2024-09-05 12:58:13 +0000, olcott said:
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On 9/5/2024 2:20 AM, Mikko wrote:

On 2024-09-03 13:03:51 +0000, olcott said:
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On 9/3/2024 3:39 AM, Mikko wrote:

On 2024-09-02 13:33:36 +0000, olcott said:
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On 9/1/2024 5:58 AM, Mikko wrote:

On 2024-09-01 03:04:43 +0000, olcott said:
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*I just fixed the loophole of the Gettier cases*
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knowledge is a justified true belief such that the
justification is sufficient reason to accept the
truth of the belief.
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https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gettier_problem

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The remaining loophole is the lack of an exact definition
of "sufficient reason".
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Ultimately sufficient reason is correct semantic
entailment from verified facts.

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The problem is "verified" facts: what is sufficient verification?
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Stipulated to be true is always sufficient:
Cats are a know if animal.

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Insufficient for practtical purposes. You may stipulate that
nitroglycerine is not poison but it can kill you anyway.
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The point is that <is> the way the linguistic truth actually works.

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I've never seen or heard any linguist say so. The term has been used
by DG Schwartz in 1985.
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This is similar to the analytic/synthetic distinction
yet unequivocal.
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I am redefining the term analytic truth to have a
similar definition and calling this {linguistic truth}.
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Expression of X of language L is proved true entirely
based on its meaning expressed in language L. Empirical
truth requires sense data from the sense organs to be
verified as true.

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Seems that you don't know about any linguist that has used the term.
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I INVENTED A BRAND NEW FREAKING TERM

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Is it really a new term if someone else (DG Schwartz) has used it before?
Is it a term for a new concept or a new term for an old concept?
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A stipulative definition is a type of definition in which a
new or currently existing term is given a new specific meaning
for the purposes of argument or discussion in a given context.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stipulative_definition

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A stipulative definition is a temporary hack when it is not clear
what the definition should be or when a need for a good definitino
is not expected. A stipluative definition is not valid outside the
opus or discussion where it is presented.
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*LINGUISTIC TRUTH IS STIPULATED TO MEAN*
When expression X of language L is connected to its semantic
meaning M by a sequence of truth preserving operations P in
language L then and only then is X true in L. That was the
True(L,X) that Tarski "proved" cannot possibly exist.
Copyright 2024 Olcott

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With that definition Tarski proved that linguistic truth is not
identifiable.
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No he did not. Tarski's proof that begins with the Liar Paradox
gets rejected at step (3).

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In the system Tarski was using (i.e. ordinary logic) a proof cannot
be rejected.
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If the system is too stupid to reject invalid input
then it is too stupid. Ordinary logic is too stupid
to even say the Liar Paradox that I what I invented
minimal type theory.
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https://www.researchgate.net/ publication/331859461_Minimal_Type_Theory_YACC_BNF
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LP := ~True(LP)
(0) not  (1)
(1) true (0) // cycle in digraph

 For ordinary first order logic it is possible to make a program that
reads a text file and checks whether it is a vlaid proof. Is the same
possible for your Minimal Type Theory?
 

I don't need any of that. All that I need to do
is reject the Liar Paradox as invalid input because
it specifies a cycle in its evaluation sequence.
Tarski was simply far too stupid to this this.
--
Copyright 2024 Olcott "Talent hits a target no one else can hit; Genius
hits a target no one else can see." Arthur Schopenhauer