Re: Dave Yadallee denies reality, bears false witness

The Doctor wrote on 20/6/24 10:13 pm:

In article <v514su$2ib32$1@dont-email.me>, The Last Doctor
<mike@xenocyte.com> wrote:

The Slave to AI <doctor@doctor.nl2k.ab.ca> wrote:

 Liar!  n fact, booth you and Solar Penguin and cut-and-lie
liars!

 That is just, as Daniel would call it, gobbledegook, Dave.
 You’re getting very angry about not what I believe, or what solar
penguin believes, but about accepted Biblical scholarship.
 No-one with any education about or understanding of the history of Christianity believes that any of the New Testament was written by
any of Jesus’ contemporaries, or anyone who knew him personally.
 Some of Paul’s letters (but not all) are believed to have been
written by Paul who was effectively one of the second generation of
apostles. Acts and Luke were written by one of Paul’s students.
All the other writings are - well - later, and by other early
Christians.
 None of that means that those books can’t have been divinely
inspired or influenced. As I wrote previously in-thread (and you
seem to have ignored because you were too focused on avoiding being
caught in your own error): none of the above makes the New
Testament any more or less relevant to Christians. It just means
that none of the Bible was written by Jesus or by any direct
witness to the words or acts described in it. Which is a simple statement of fact.
 It doesn’t make all the content false, though some of it is
clearly apocryphal and some is contradictory of other parts, so it
CANNOT all be literally true. When two writers flat out contradict
each other, at least one of them MUST be wrong.
 Anyone who doesn’t understand that the Bible was written by men,
after the death of Jesus, by people who never met him, and that it
is not completely consistent, is uneducated. Anyone who refuses to
believe it, when shown, is frankly a deluded idiot.
 But back to the point where you started this: where in the Bible
does it say that Jesus (not his followers, or ancient Jewish
priests laying down the laws of men) - that Jesus condemns
homosexuals (well, physical acts that are homosexual in nature -
the concept as such didn’t exist back then)?
 That was your claim. What is its Biblical basis?
 Hint: You need a Book, Chapter and Verses that attribute this
sentiment to Jesus.

 I did you cut and lie freaks!

Gobble-de-gook AGAIN is unable AGAIN to answer a question specifically asked of HIM!! ..... HOW UNUSUAL ...... *NOT* !!
--
Daniel