Sujet : Re: Somewheres
De : naddy (at) *nospam* mips.inka.de (Christian Weisgerber)
Groupes : alt.usage.english sci.langDate : 04. Sep 2024, 19:36:03
Autres entêtes
Message-ID : <slrnvdha4j.6rm.naddy@lorvorc.mips.inka.de>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
User-Agent : slrn/1.0.3 (FreeBSD)
On 2024-09-02, Christian Weisgerber <
naddy@mips.inka.de> wrote:
Have you ever wondered why the third person plural present tense
forms of Italian verbs are so strangely stressed, e.g., pàrlano
instead of *parlàno? And where is that -o from anyway?
So that was an example where something was added at the end of
words. I don't intend this as an invalidation of the general
observation that there is a longtime trend of phonetic erosion, but
I want to show that actual language history is complex and circuitous.
Here's another one. From the King James Version, you may be familiar
with the second person singular indicative ending -(e)st (-t in
some verbs), "thou thinkest" etc. German also has -st across the
second person singular. Clearly, -st is an old 2SG marker...
... Except, Slavic has -š there. Latin, not a language to drop final
-t, has -s. Even Gothic has -s, and if you look at the variants
in early Old English and Old High German, the original 2SG ending
is also -s.
Where did the -t come from? There are two hypotheses. One, dismissed
by Ringe (and I'm skeptical as well), is from missegmentation when
the subject pronoun (tu ~ þu) followed the verb. The other involves
the appearance of -s-t due to sound changes in some preterite-present
verbs, reanalysis as -st, and spread to other verbs. Remarkably,
this appears to have happened independently in both English and
German.
-- Christian "naddy" Weisgerber naddy@mips.inka.de