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I wasn't attempting to paraphrase anything. I was simply providing a formula which is true.And what is wrong with the analysis given one that page:André G. Isaak's paraphrase of this:
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"any statement can be proven from a contradiction"
to this:
((X & ~X) implies Y) is necessarily true.
Is incorrect.
--Yet is not an accurate paraphrase of: ∀x (⊥ ⊢ x)>>Here is the correct paraphrase: ∀x (⊥ ⊢ x).>
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And Yes that can be PROVEN
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So you agree that André had this wrong when he used
implies(→) instead of proves(⊢).
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No, The FACT that ((X & ~X) implies Y) is true is provable.
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so André was wrong in his paraphrase.
Now, it is also true that (X & ~X) is enough to PROVE any statement, which is actually a stronger statement.
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