Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : james.g.burns (at) *nospam* att.net (Jim Burns)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 20. Oct 2024, 19:50:18
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <7c9260f6-ae41-4bc2-94b0-ea72fdbc26a3@att.net>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 10/20/2024 3:40 AM, WM wrote:
On 20.10.2024 00:08, Jim Burns wrote:
On 10/19/2024 2:28 PM, WM wrote:
The contradiction is independent of infinity.
It is your claim that
>
infinitely.many exchanges in an infinite set
(vanishing Bob)
>
Every exchange is _one_ lossless exchange.
It is my claim that
infinitely.many exchanges in an infinite set
can result in the loss of one of them.
1 is not infinite.
exchanging two objects
can result in the loss of one of them.
>
I fixed that for you.
>
It is nonsense like:
∀n ∈ ℕ:
|{2, 4, 6, ..., 2n}|/|{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ..., 2n} = 1/2
but
|{2, 4, 6, ...}|/|{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ...} = 1.
A finite set can be ordered such that
each subset holds its top and bottom or is empty.
An infinite set is not finite.
∀n ∈ ℕ:
finite {2,4,6,...,2n}
finite {1,2,3,4,5,6,...,2n}
infinite {2,4,6,...}
infinite {1,2,3,4,5,6,...}