Re: I dare to relativists to explain local time: t-vx/c²

Den 07.10.2024 00:55, skrev rhertz:

On Sat, 5 Oct 2024 13:23:15 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:
 

Den 05.10.2024 00:16, skrev rhertz:

 <snip>
 

See:
https://paulba.no/paper/Electrodynamics.pdf
Read §3
  Theory of the Transformation of Co-ordinates and
  Times from a Stationary System to another System in
  Uniform Motion of Translation Relatively to the Former
>
You will NOT find the "change of variables" transform: (l set to 1)
  c²/(c²-v²) = β²         Lorentz equation (3)
  x' = βx, y'= y, z'= z   Lorentz equation (4)
  t' = t/β - βvx/c²       Lorentz equation (5)
>
Einstein never plagiarised Lorentz's "change of variables" transform.
>
and you will NOT find the Galilean transform:
x' = x - vt (or x = X - vt)
>
so when you said:
"In 1905, Einstein introduced (TRICK, out of the blue)
  x = X - vt, in order to get rid of ether."
you were LYING because you must know that it isn't true.
>

 

snip>
>
Sometimes your misinterpretation of the text you are reading
is hilarious! :-D

Indeed. And you did it _again_! HILARIOUS! :-D

 **************************************************************
 LIAR + DECEIVER + FANATIC + IMBECILE <= Relativist Paul Anderson.
 THE FIRST THING THAT EINSTEIN USED TO MAKE A FRAUDULENT PLAGIARISM
OF LORENTZ EQUATIONS WAS TO USE THE GALILEAN TRANSFORM x' = x - vt.
 You, Paul, are beyond DISHONESTY! You are just A CROOK, either on
relativity or (I'm sure) ANYTHING ELSE YOU DID, DO AND WILL DO.
 It's on your blood, fucking retarded!
  READ THIS - READ THIS  - READ THIS - READ THIS - READ THIS
 EINSTEIN USED GALILEAN TRANSFORM TO DERIVE LORENTZ WITHOUT ETHER!!
 You are A DISGRACE OF A HUMAN BEING. I CEASE ANY CONTACT SINCE NOW.
   PROOF IN THE 1905 PAPER.
  QUOTE:
---------------------------------------------------------------------
§ 3. Theory of the Transformation of Co-ordinates and Times from a
Stationary System to another System in Uniform Motion of Translation
Relatively to the Former
 ............................................
Quoting 6th. paragraph (if you can count, beast!
............................................
 If we place x' = x − vt, it is clear that a point at rest in the system
k must have a system of values x', y, z, independent of time. We first
define τ as a function of x', y, z, and t. To do this we have to express
in equations that τ is nothing else than the summary of the data of
clocks at rest in system k, which have been synchronized according to
the rule given in § 1.
--------------------------------------------------------------------
 GOT THAT, IMBECILE IGNORANT?

You have not understood anything of Einstein's text, which is
very obvious from your ridiculous claim that §3 is a plagiarism
of Lorentz. You can't even have read §3 properly, you have only
scrutinised the text to find "x' = x − vt", and when you found
it, you got an orgasm, shouting:
"EINSTEIN USED GALILEAN TRANSFORM TO DERIVE LORENTZ WITHOUT ETHER!!"
But you are yet again making a fool of yourself, and yet again
you are demonstrating that you are unable to read a text and
understand what you read.
I could leave it at that, but since you are such a nice person,
I will explain.
See:
https://paulba.no/paper/Electrodynamics.pdf
Read §3
  Theory of the Transformation of Co-ordinates and
  Times from a Stationary System to another System in
  Uniform Motion of Translation Relatively to the Former
On the first page (page 5) Einstein defines the coordinate systems.
The "stationary system"  K(t,x,y,z) coordinates are Latin letters
The "moving system"      k(τ,ξ,η,ζ) coordinates are Greek letters
So the Galilean transform is: ξ = x - vt
You will _not_ find this anywhere in Einstein's paper.
The x' is a point in the stationary system K, it is NOT
a coordinate in the moving system k.
So x' = x - vt is a _moving_ point in K.
And since x' is moving with the speed v, it will be stationary
relative to k.
And as you quoted above:
" We first define τ as a function of x', y, z, and t", τ(t,x',y,z)
This is the first step in finding the functions:
τ(t,x,y,z) = β(t - (v/c²)x)
ξ(t,x,y,z) = β(x - vt)
η(t,x,y,z) = y
ζ(t,x,y,z) = z
Read the math in §3!
There is no resemblance to anything you find in Lorentz's paper.
Lorentz didn't even write the Lorentz transform in that paper!
He only used the Galilean transform first, and then the
"change of variable" transform. These two transforms together
is the Lorentz transform.
See:
https://paulba.no/div/LTorigin.pdf
"For a reader who is not very skilled in mathematics,
  it may not be obvious that the Lorentz transformation
  is defined in that paper."
Richard Hertz is obviously in this category, because he thought
the "change of variables" transform was the Lorentz transform.
" 1904 ORIGINAL LORENTZ TRANSFORMS
   x' = β x  ;  Lorentz Eq. 4
   t' = t/β - β vx/c² ;  Lorentz Eq. 5
"
-----------
Remember that x', like any symbol, may have different meaning
in different texts. :-D
You have a lot in common with Dilbert:
https://paulba.no/pdf/Dilbert.pdf
--
Paul
https://paulba.no/