Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?
De : python (at) *nospam* invalid.org (Python)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 07. Sep 2024, 16:05:24
Autres entêtes
Organisation : CCCP
Message-ID : <vbhmj4$1cg6l$4@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
Le 07/09/2024 à 15:03, WM a écrit :
On 07.09.2024 14:37, Richard Damon wrote:
On 9/7/24 8:04 AM, WM wrote:
NUF(x) changes by 1 because a change by more at any x would count more different unit fractions 1/n, 1/m, 1/k, ... which are identical because they are the same x = 1/n = 1/m = 1/k = ... .
>
And thus is always has a value of aleph_0 for all x > 0, since there is always aleph_0 unit fractions below and finite positive x value.
Stop that nonsense. ℵo unit fractions cannot fit into every interval (0, x).
Of course they can.
"There's Plenty of Room at the Bottom" — Richard Feynman.
The distance between two unit fractions already is larger.
Some are, but for ℵo pairs of them they be arbitrary small
(i.e. < x).
How can you be so wrong on such elementary stuff Crank Mückenheim?
…