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On 7/23/2024 9:51 AM, Wasell wrote:You may say that, but you then refuse to do the work to actually do that.On Mon, 22 Jul 2024 20:17:15 -0400, in articleI am establishing a new meaning for
<3fb77583036a3c8b0db4b77610fb4bf4214c9c23@i2pn2.org>, Richard Damon wrote:>>
On 7/22/24 8:11 PM, olcott wrote:
[...]
>>*No stupid I have never been saying anything like that* If g and>
~g is not provable in PA then g is not a truth-bearer in PA.
What makes it different fron Goldbach's conjecture?
I think a better example might be Goodstein's theorem [1].
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* It is expressible in the same language as PA.
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* It is neither provable, nor disprovable, in PA.
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* We know that it is true in the standard model of arithmetic.
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* We know that it is false in some (necessarily non-standard) models
of arithmetic.
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* It was discovered and proved long before it was shown to be
undecidable in PA.
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The only drawback is that the theorem is somewhat more complicated
than Goldbach's conjecture -- not a lot, but a bit.
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[1] <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goodstein%27s_theorem>
{true on the basis of meaning expressed in language}
Formerly known as {analytic truth}.
This makes True(L,x) computable and definable.
L is the language of a formal mathematical system.Except you just defined that this isn't true, as you admit that the Goldbach conjecgture COULD be an analytic truth even if it doesn't have a finte sequence of truth perserving operations, but only an infinite sequence. But a Analytic Truth MUST be a "truth-bearer", so you just blew up your whole logic system with your lies.
x is an expression of that language.
When we understand that True(L,x) means that there is a finite
sequence of truth preserving operations in L from the semantic
meaning of x to x in L, then mathematical incompleteness is abolished.
~True(L,x) ∧ ~True(L,~x)
means that x is not a truth-bearer in L.
It does not mean that L is incomplete
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