Re: Undecidability based on epistemological antinomies V2

On 4/18/24 10:50 AM, olcott wrote:

On 4/17/2024 10:13 PM, Richard Damon wrote:

On 4/17/24 10:34 PM, olcott wrote:

...14 Every epistemological antinomy can likewise be used for a similar
undecidability proof...(Gödel 1931:43-44)
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*Parphrased as*
Every expression X that cannot possibly be true or false proves that the
formal system F cannot correctly determine whether X is true or false.
Which shows that X is undecidable in F.

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Nope.
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Just more of your LIES and STUPIDITY.
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Which shows that F is incomplete, even though X cannot possibly be a
proposition in F because propositions must be true or false.

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But that ISN'T the definition of "Incomplete", so you are just LYING.
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Godel showed that a statment, THAT WAS TRUE, couldn't be proven in F.
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You don't even seem to understand what the statement G actually is, because all you look at are the "clift notes" versions, and don't even understand that.
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Remember, G is a statement about the non-existance of a number that has a specific property. Until you understand that, your continued talking about this is just more LIES and DECIET, proving your absoulute STUPIDITY.
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A proposition is a central concept in the philosophy of language,
semantics, logic, and related fields, often characterized as the primary
bearer of truth or falsity.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proposition
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Right, and if you don't know what the proposition is that you are arguing about, you are just proven to be a stupid liar.
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 If you are going to continue to be mean and call me names I will stop
talking to you. Even if you stop being mean and stop calling me names
if you continue to dogmatically say that I am wrong without pointing
out all of the details of my error, I will stop talking to you.
 This is either a civil debate and an honest dialogue or you will
hear nothing form me.
 

I say you are WRONG, because you ARE.
You say Godel's statement that is unprovable, is unprovable because it is an epistimalogical antinomy, when it isn't.
It is a statement about the non-existance of a number that satisfies a particular property, which will be a truth bearing statement (The number must either exist or it doesn't)
THAT MAKES YOU A LIAR.
That you repeat the error after being corrected, because apparently you can't understand how you are wrong, makes you a PATHOLOGICAL LIAR.
You don't even understand what Godel's G even is, but try to refer to it by the "Reader's Digest" version that talks about its interpretation and what can be proved from it in the meta-logic system derived from F.
The details HAVE been explained to you, and you just IGNORE them, so it seems worthless to repeat them every time.