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On 11/10/2024 1:13 PM, Richard Damon wrote:But the theories you are talking about aren't in the "Phiosophy of Logic" but in Formal Logic systems, where you can't change them.On 11/10/24 10:11 AM, olcott wrote:Within the philosophy of logic assumptionsOn 11/10/2024 4:03 AM, Alan Mackenzie wrote:>In comp.theory olcott <polcott333@gmail.com> wrote:>On 11/9/2024 4:28 PM, Alan Mackenzie wrote:>olcott <polcott333@gmail.com> wrote:On 11/9/2024 3:45 PM, Alan Mackenzie wrote:
[ .... ]
>>Gödel understood mathematical logic full well (indeed, played a
significant part in its development),>He utterly failed to understand that his understanding
of provable in meta-math cannot mean true in PA unless
also provable in PA according to the deductive inference
foundation of all logic.>You're lying in your usual fashion, namely by lack of expertise. It is
entirely your lack of understanding. If Gödel's proof was not rigorously
correct, his result would have been long discarded. It is correct.Even if every other detail is 100% correct without>
"true and unprovable" (the heart of incompleteness)
it utterly fails to make its incompleteness conclusion.
You are, of course, wrong here. You are too ignorant to make such a
judgment. I believe you've never even read through and verified a proof
of Gödel's theorem.
>
If you had a basis in reasoning to show that I was wrong
on this specific point you could provide it. You have no
basis in reasoning on this specific point all you have is
presumption.
If you gave some actual formal basis for your reasoning, then perhaps a formal reply could be made.
>
Since your arguement starts with mis-interpreatations of what Godel's proof does, you start off in error.
>>>>Perhaps you simply don't understand it at that level>
thus will never have any idea that I proved I am correct.
More lies. You don't even understand what the word "proved" means.
>
Here is what Mathworld construes as proof
A rigorous mathematical argument which unequivocally
demonstrates the truth of a given proposition. A
mathematical statement that has been proven is called
a theorem. https://mathworld.wolfram.com/Proof.html
>
the principle of explosion is the law according to which any statement can be proven from a contradiction.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_explosion
Right, and I have shown your that proof, and you haven't shown what statement in that proof is wrong, so you have accepted it.
>
Thus, YOU are the one disagreeing with yourself.
>>>
Validity and Soundness
A deductive argument is said to be valid if and only
if it takes a form that makes it impossible for the
premises to be true and the conclusion nevertheless
to be false. Otherwise, a deductive argument is said
to be invalid.
>
A deductive argument is sound if and only if it is
both valid, and all of its premises are actually true.
Otherwise, a deductive argument is unsound.
https://iep.utm.edu/val-snd/
>
Here is the PL Olcott correction / clarification of all of
them. A proof begins with a set of expressions of language
known to be true (true premises) and derives a conclusion
that is a necessary consequence by applying truth preserving
operations to the true premises.
But you aren't allowed to CHANGE those meanings.
>
can be changed to see where t that lead.
So, I guess you are just admitting that you can't define what you are talking about.Sorry, but until you actually and formally fully define your logic system, you can't start using it.We don't really have a symbols for truth preserving operations.
>
When C is a necessary consequence of the Haskell CurryAnd "Necessary Consequence" in formal logic means that if follows from a (potentailly infinite) series of the defined operation on the defined stipulated truths.
elementary theorems of L (Thus stipulated to be true in L)
then and only then is C is True in L.
https://www.liarparadox.org/Haskell_Curry_45.pdf
(Haskell_Curry_Elementary_Theorems(L) □ C) ≡ True(L, C)Nope, just proves that you are too stupid to understand what you are talking about.
This simple change does get rid of incompleteness because
Incomplete(L) is superseded and replaced by Incorrect(L,x).
No, Russels's paradox proved that naive set theory was incoherent.And, if you want to talk in your logic system, you can't say it refutes arguments built in other logic system.ZFC proves that naive set theory was incoherent.
>
Russell's paradox still exists in incoherent naive set theory.
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