Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?
De : FTR (at) *nospam* nomail.afraid.org (FromTheRafters)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 02. Oct 2024, 20:44:55
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Peripheral Visions
Message-ID : <vdk7rr$3c2vh$1@dont-email.me>
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WM formulated the question :
On 02.10.2024 13:30, FromTheRafters wrote:
WM pretended :
>
No. ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 does not prove that n+1 is a natural number. Note the infinite sequence
1, 2, 3, ..., ω-2, ω-1, ω.
Omega minus one or two is undefined
>
Yes in so far as these natural numbers are dark and cannot be reached by a FISON.
They are not natural numbers either.
and n plus one closure is axiomatic.
>
But it is in contradiction with NUF(x) passing 1. Do you understand that NUF(x) can nowhere increase by more than 1?
Nowhere but in your mind is that 'passing' a necessity.
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