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On 11/21/2024 11:24 AM, WM wrote:
That is not an answer. Further it is only valid for the first numbers which are followed by almost all numbers. Never completed.By what is it covered,⎛ n ↦ i/j ↦ n
after all n have been proved unable?
⎜
⎜ (i+j) := ⌈(2⋅n+¼)¹ᐟ²+½⌉
⎜ i := n-((i+j)-1)⋅((i+j)-2)/2
⎜ j := (i+j)-i
⎜
⎝ (i+j-1)⋅(i+j-2)/2+i = n
Either limits can be calculated from the finite, or not. If not, then Cantor's attempts are in vain from the scratch. If yes, then Cantor's attempts have been contradicted.There is no reason to believe in magic.But if you do, thenI am not enough of a scholar to know
all Cantor-bijections can fail as well
"in the infinite".
Then mathematics is insufficient
to determine limits.
that this is true of _all_ mathematics, but
I know that much knowledge of infinity,
including what I'm most familiar with,
is grounded in the _finite_
Here, I DON'T refer to finite numbers, etc.That is the sequence of claims that limits can be calculated from the finite and never the real axis is coloured black.
I refer to finite sequences of CLAIMS,
each of which is true.or.not.first.false.
Les messages affichés proviennent d'usenet.