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On 2/6/2025 2:02 AM, Mikko wrote:No, I did not paraphrase anything.On 2025-02-05 16:03:21 +0000, olcott said:You paraphrased what I said incorrectly.
On 2/5/2025 1:44 AM, Mikko wrote:Yes, but you didn't claim that.On 2025-02-04 16:11:08 +0000, olcott said:That mathematical incompleteness coherently exists <is> claim.
On 2/4/2025 3:22 AM, Mikko wrote:Mathematical incompleteness is not a claim so it cannot be untrue.On 2025-02-03 16:54:08 +0000, olcott said:It is untrue because it is misunderstood.
On 2/3/2025 9:07 AM, Mikko wrote:The title line means that something is misunderstood but that somethingOn 2025-02-03 03:30:46 +0000, olcott said:The notion of truth is entailed by the subject line:
On 2/2/2025 3:27 AM, Mikko wrote:Irrelevant as the subject line does not mention truth.On 2025-02-01 14:09:54 +0000, olcott said:The fundamental base meaning of Truth[0] itself remains the same
On 2/1/2025 3:19 AM, Mikko wrote:We require that terms of art are used with their term-of-art meaning andOn 2025-01-31 13:57:02 +0000, olcott said:a fact or piece of information that shows that something
On 1/31/2025 3:24 AM, Mikko wrote:And well undeerstood. The claim on the subject line is false.On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:This is well known.
Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).If there is a misconception then you have misconceived something. It is well
known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where some formulas
are neither provble nor disprovable.
exists or is true:
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/proof
no matter what idiomatic meanings say.
Therefore, no need to revise my initial comment.
misconception means ~True.
is not the meaning of "true".
The closest that it can possibly be interpreted as true wouldMath is not intentionally incomplete.
be that because key elements of proof[0] have been specified
as not existing in proof[math] math is intentionally made less
than complete.
Proof[math] was defined to have less capability than Proof[0].That is not a part of the definition but it is a consequence of the
Then you cannot have all the advantages of formal logic. In particular,Many theories are incomplete,I am integrating the semantics into the evaluation as its full context.
intertionally or otherwise, but they don't restrict the rest of math.
But there are areas of matheimatics that are not yet studied.
When-so-ever any expression of formal or natural language X lacksAn expresion can be true in one interpretation and false in another.
a connection to its truthmaker X remains untrue.
When we do this and require an expression of formal or natural languageMaybe, maybe not. Without the full support of formal logic it is hard to
to have a semantic connection to its truthmaker then true[0] cannot
exist apart from provable[0].
True[math] can only exist apart from Provable[math] withinIf you want that to be true you need to define True[math] differently
the narrow minded, idiomatic use of these terms. This is
NOT the way that True[0] and Provable[0] actually work.
My point is much more clear when we see that Tarski attemptsTarski did not attempt to show that True[0] is undefinable. He showed
to show that True[0] is undefinable.
https://liarparadox.org/Tarski_247_248.pdf
https://liarparadox.org/Tarski_275_276.pdf
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