Re: Andrej Bauer is a red flag (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)

Liste des GroupesRevenir à s logic 
Sujet : Re: Andrej Bauer is a red flag (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)
De : janburse (at) *nospam* fastmail.fm (Mild Shock)
Groupes : sci.logic
Date : 01. Dec 2024, 14:04:44
Autres entêtes
Message-ID : <vihmtc$lqgf$1@solani.org>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6
User-Agent : Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 10.0; Win64; x64; rv:91.0) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/91.0 SeaMonkey/2.53.19
It could be that among the exceptions is
also certain academic work. So maybe
there are different rules for CSTHEORY,
that for SO. Which has different audience.
But especially SO is problematic, since
it adresses "developers", they start their site with:
"Every developer has a
tab open to Stack Overflow."
For over 15 years we’ve been the Q&A platform
of choice that millions of people visit every
month to ask questions, learn, and
share technical knowledge.
https://stackoverflow.com/
So what is really "muddled" is thery IP
theft. Although they offer stack overflow
for teams. But maybe there is another solution
to the dilemma, something inbetween and more
fluid. Like GitHub, where you easily switch back
and forth a repository from private to non-private.
It is probably part and parcel of their marketing
stategiy that they make it most difficult to get
control over your own IP. So as to move you into
stackoverflow for teams. Which is of course a
moronic idea that this would work. There are
quite a couple of alternatives around,
Scryer Prolog uses GitHub discussions. But GitHub
can be also extremly Nazi.
Mild Shock schrieb:
 One problem I generally see is, that most people
are not aware, that an employee has no rights
on the stuff he writes for his employer.
 Standard Rules:
- Work for Hire Doctrine: In most jurisdictions, code
written by an employee within the scope of their employment is considered a "work for hire," meaning the employer owns
the intellectual property (IP) unless otherwise agreed in writing.
- Employment Contracts: Most employment agreements
explicitly state that any code, inventions, or intellectual
property created as part of your job belongs to the employer.
- Use of Employer Resources: If an employee uses the
employer’s time, tools, or resources to create code, the employer generally owns the resulting work.
 Exceptions:
- Independent Work: If an employee writes code outside
working hours, without using company resources, and it’s
unrelated to their job, they may retain rights. Some
jurisdictions, like California, have laws (e.g., California Labor Code §2870) protecting employees in such cases.
- Negotiated Agreements: If the employee has a specific
agreement (e.g., consulting or freelance arrangements),
ownership terms might differ.
 So like 90% of the stackoverflow users cannot
go into an agreement individually, since they are
employed, with stackoverflow in that they would be
able to give a license to what they write.
  Mild Shock schrieb:
Mild Shock schrieb:
such mechanisms should be a playground
for infantile developers with a mindset of a 5 year old.
>
Corr.:
>
such mechanisms should not be a playground
for infantile developers with a mindset of a 5 year old.
 

Date Sujet#  Auteur
18 Nov 24 * How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?34Julio Di Egidio
18 Nov 24 +* Re: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?26Mild Shock
18 Nov 24 i`* Re: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?25Julio Di Egidio
19 Nov 24 i `* can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)24Mild Shock
19 Nov 24 i  `* Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)23Julio Di Egidio
19 Nov 24 i   `* Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)22Mild Shock
22 Nov 24 i    `* Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)21Julio Di Egidio
22 Nov 24 i     +* Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)5Julio Di Egidio
27 Nov 24 i     i`* Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)4Ross Finlayson
27 Nov 24 i     i `* Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)3Julio Di Egidio
27 Nov 24 i     i  `* Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)2Ross Finlayson
27 Nov 24 i     i   `- Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)1Julio Di Egidio
28 Nov 24 i     `* Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)15Mild Shock
28 Nov 24 i      +* Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)2Mild Shock
28 Nov 24 i      i`- Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)1Mild Shock
28 Nov 24 i      +* Negative translation for propositional linear (or affine) logic?10Julio Di Egidio
28 Nov 24 i      i+- Re: Negative translation for propositional linear (or affine) logic?1Julio Di Egidio
28 Nov 24 i      i`* Re: Negative translation for propositional linear (or affine) logic?8Mild Shock
28 Nov 24 i      i `* Re: Negative translation for propositional linear (or affine) logic?7Mild Shock
28 Nov 24 i      i  `* Re: Negative translation for propositional linear (or affine) logic?6Julio Di Egidio
28 Nov 24 i      i   `* Re: Negative translation for propositional linear (or affine) logic?5Mild Shock
28 Nov 24 i      i    `* Re: Negative translation for propositional linear (or affine) logic?4Mild Shock
1 Dec 24 i      i     `* Re: Negative translation for propositional linear (or affine) logic?3Julio Di Egidio
1 Dec 24 i      i      `* Re: Negative translation for propositional linear (or affine) logic?2Mild Shock
1 Dec 24 i      i       `- Re: Negative translation for propositional linear (or affine) logic?1Julio Di Egidio
1 Dec 24 i      `* Re: can λ-prolog do it? (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)2Julio Di Egidio
1 Dec 24 i       `- I am busy with other stuff (Was: can λ-prolog do it?)1Mild Shock
1 Dec 24 `* Andrej Bauer is a red flag (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)7Mild Shock
1 Dec 24  +- Re: Andrej Bauer is a red flag (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)1Mild Shock
1 Dec 24  `* Re: Andrej Bauer is a red flag (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)5Julio Di Egidio
1 Dec 24   `* Re: Andrej Bauer is a red flag (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)4Mild Shock
1 Dec 24    `* Re: Andrej Bauer is a red flag (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)3Mild Shock
1 Dec 24     `* Re: Andrej Bauer is a red flag (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)2Mild Shock
1 Dec 24      `- Re: Andrej Bauer is a red flag (Was: How to prove this theorem with intuitionistic natural deduction?)1Mild Shock

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