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On 2/22/2025 3:12 AM, Mikko wrote:Of course it is. Its semantics is well defined by the Prolog standard.On 2025-02-21 23:22:23 +0000, olcott said:IT CANNOT POSSIBLY BE SEMANTICALLY VALID
On 2/20/2025 3:01 AM, Mikko wrote:It does in the context where it was presented. More generally,On 2025-02-18 13:50:22 +0000, olcott said:It does not mean that. You are wrong.
There is nothing like that in the following concrete example:According to Prolog rules LP = not(true(LP)) is permitted to fail.
LP := ~True(LP)
In other words you are saying the Prolog is incorrect
to reject the Liar Paradox.
Above translated to Prolog
?- LP = not(true(LP)).
LP = not(true(LP)).
If it succeeds the operations using LP may misbehave. A memory
leak is also possible.
?- unify_with_occurs_check(LP, not(true(LP))).This merely means that the result of unification would be that LP conains
false
itself. It could be a selmantically valid result but is not in the scope
of Prolog language.
unify_with_occurs_check also fails if the arguments are not
unfiable. But this possibility is already excluded by their
successfull unification.
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