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On 3/10/2025 9:49 PM, dbush wrote:Prolog does not prove anything other than what you ask. I don't thinkOn 3/10/2025 10:39 PM, olcott wrote:When you stupidly ignore Prolog and MTT thatOn 3/10/2025 9:21 PM, Richard Damon wrote:~True(LP) resolves to trueOn 3/10/25 9:45 PM, olcott wrote:bool True(X)On 3/10/2025 5:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:But is irrelevent to your arguement.On 3/9/25 11:39 PM, olcott wrote:The Liar Paradox PROPERLY FORMALIZED <is> Infinitely recursiveLP := ~True(LP) DOES SPECIFY INFINITE RECURSION.WHich is irrelevent, as that isn't the statement in view, only what could be shown to be a meaning of the actual statement.
thus semantically incorrect.
"It would then be possible to reconstruct the antinomy of the liarRight, the "Liar" is in the METALANGUAGE, not the LANGUAGE where the predicate is defined.
in the metalanguage, by forming in the language itself a sentence"
You are just showing you don't understand the concept of Metalanguage.
Thus anchoring his whole proof in the Liar Paradox even ifYes, there is a connection to the liar's paradox, and that is that he shows that the presumed existance of a Truth Predicate forces the logic system to have to resolve the liar's paradox.
you do not understand the term "metalanguage" well enough
to know this.
{
if (~unify_with_occurs_check(X))
return false;
else if (~Truth_Bearer(X))
return false;
else
return IsTrue(X);
}
LP := ~True(LP)
True(LP) resolves to false.
LP := ~True(LP) resolves to true
Therefore the assumption that a correct True() predicate exists is proven false.
both prove there is a cycle in the directed graph
of their evaluation sequence. If you have no idea
what "cycle", "directed graph" and "evaluation sequence"
means then this mistake is easy to make.
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