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WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:It starts: For every n ∈ ℕ that can be defined.
On 26.05.2025 02:52, Ben Bacarisse wrote:Not without knowing what the set N_def is, since the argument startsWM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:>>With pleasure:I can't comment on an argument that is based on a set you have not
For every n ∈ ℕ that can be defined, i.e., ∀n ∈ ℕ_def:
defined.
Can you understand my proof by induction?
"For all n in N_def".
I am asking you to understand a proof by induction.The resulting set is ℕ_def. (According to set theory however it is not aSo you are not asking me to verify a proof at all but rather to accept a
set but a potentially infinity collection.)
definition?
One that starts from claims about the thing being defined?Not claims, but a proof: It starts: For every n ∈ ℕ that can be defined. And it proves that not every n ∈ ℕ can be defined.
Since this is the set used in applied mathematics.It claims to define N.Your textbook defies N>
It defines ℕ_def.
It's very poor form to tell students you areIt is the set defined by Peano and many others.
defining N when you are not.
In another reply (please don't split threads -- you may have time toThe book was written 10 to 20 years ago. At that time I did not bother about Cantor's ℕ and did not mention it.
discuss this stuff endlessly but I don't) you say:
So when you write N and N_def you are referring to the same thing?Your textbook defies N (incorrectly)>
My textbook defines the classical natural numbers, ℕ, meanwhile more
precisely called ℕ_def, correctly.
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