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On 26.05.2025 12:44, Mikko wrote:No. A proof should start with a clear presentation of the premises.On 2025-05-26 10:17:27 +0000, WM said:Here it proves that the natural numbers accessible by induction are not all natural numbers.
On 26.05.2025 02:52, Ben Bacarisse wrote:A proof by inductin does not define. It proves.WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:Can you understand my proof by induction?With pleasure:I can't comment on an argument that is based on a set you have not
For every n ∈ ℕ that can be defined, i.e., ∀n ∈ ℕ_def:
defined.
The resulting set is ℕ_def. (According to set theory however it is not a set but a potentially infinity collection.)For example: if we assume thatThen you get a contradiction because by induction the natural numbers accessible by induction are not all natural numbers.
0 ∈ ℕ_def
and that
∀n (n ∈ ℕ_def → (n + 1) ∈ ℕ_def)
then we can apply induction and prove that
ℕ ⊆ ℕ_def .
{1} has infinitely many (ℵo) successors.
If {1, 2, 3, ..., n} has infinitely many (ℵo) successors, then {1, 2, 3, ..., n, n+1} has infinitely many (ℵo) successors. For every n that can be defined.
Do you accept this proof?
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