Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?

On 10/18/2024 2:13 PM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:

On 9/16/2024 2:38 PM, Jim Burns wrote:

On 9/16/2024 4:15 PM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:

WM is a strange one.
If no point is between them,
then they are the same.

>
If no point is between different points,
then the points aren't in the complete line.

>
If p0 and p1 are the same point then p1 - p0 is zero.
>
Say:
>
p0 = (1, 2, 3)
p1 = (1, 2, 3)
>
pdif = p1 - p0
>
pdif would be (0, 0, 0)
>
See?

I wouldn't choose to say that 0 is between 0 and 0
If necessary,
I would correct what I'd said so that
it could not be taken to mean that.
But that isn't something that should stop us from
saying what we want to say about 0 and other points.
----

On 9/15/2024 3:47 PM, WM wrote:

On 14.09.2024 20:35, joes wrote:

Am Sat, 14 Sep 2024 16:01:02 +0200 schrieb WM:

Two points are next to each other
means that
no point is between them.

>
Which is the case for no two (different) reals.

>
For no two different visible numbers,
to be precise.

I would have thought that being.between
had nothing to do with being.dark or being.visible.
WM corrects me: It matters in some way.
How does it matter?
My need to ask is all the proof WM needs
that I should not be told how it matters,
proof that I am not one of the Fair Folk,
able to spin WM's straw into gold;
_not at all_ because WM has no idea
what WM is talking about, and
accomplishing more than making math.like noises
is beyond his reach.