Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 03. May 2024, 14:45:59
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <2PFEELnXky6mM8zwD8ZjHtv9XOo@jntp>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
User-Agent : Nemo/0.999a
Le 02/05/2024 à 20:00, Jim Burns a écrit :
My guess is that,
whether WM is aware of it or not,
he follows this line of thought:
| Infinitenessⁿᵒᵗᐧᵂᴹ is weird.
| Infinitenessⁿᵒᵗᐧᵂᴹ is wrong.
You are completely misinformed.
Fact is that I don't know whether actual infinity is true. But I assume it, and if I am right, then all natural numbers can be subtracted from the set of all real numbers. ==> They have no successors which must remain. From all *definable* natnumbers (Peano-natnumbers) however we know that they have ℵo successors. ==> Not all are definable. A huge, infinite subset is dark.
Regards, WM