Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)

On 11/4/24 6:07 AM, WM wrote:

On 03.11.2024 22:21, Richard Damon wrote:
 

But Induction *IS* valid for all Natural Numbers.

 Only for all natnumbers which can be defined and which belong to a finite initial segment which is followed by ℵo natnumbers most of which you cannot define.
 By induction you can prove the sum n(n+1)/2 for every initial segment 1+2+3+...+n. But not for all natural numbers.
 Regards, WM
 

But all Natural Numbers can be defined.
Your logic is just based on the invalid assumption of the existance of something that does not exist, and that assumption blows your logic (and your brain) to smithereens, and the "darkness" you see is just the void left behind.