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On 10.12.2024 01:45, Richard Damon wrote:But that is just showing the error in YOUR logic.On 12/9/24 8:04 AM, WM wrote:On 09.12.2024 13:03, Richard Damon wrote:On 12/9/24 4:04 AM, WM wrote:>On 08.12.2024 19:01, Jim Burns wrote:By your logic, 1 equals 0,
>You (WM) are consideringThen analysis is contradicted in set theory.
infinite dark.finite.cardinals,
which do not exist.
>
∀n ∈ ℕ: E(1)∩E(2)∩...∩E(n) = E(n).
The limit of the left-hand side is empty, the limit of the right- hand side is full, i.e. not empty.
I do not tolerate that.
>
No, that are two different sequences.But since both 0^x and x^0 as x approaches 0 approach 0^0, your logic says that 0^0 is both 0 and 1.You should check your "logic". When two different sequences have different limits, this does not mean that the limits are identical. By the way 0^0 = 1 is simply a definition.
The end state is an infinite set, that doesn't have the same properties of the finite sets the form the sequence.>The end infinite state is a set.
Just because you have a sequence, doesn't mean you can talk about the end infinite state at the "end" of the sequence.
Which isn't the part I am talking of, it is that just because each step of a sequence has a value, doesn't mean the thing that is at that limit, has the same value.>Two sequences that are identical term by term cannot have different limits. 0^x and x^0 are different term by term.
you have two sequences that seem to go to the same infinte set at the end,
REgards, WM
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