Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 06. May 2024, 19:59:04
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <IzQUzuTPV4P3XMbkfmQrEzl_xMs@jntp>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
User-Agent : Nemo/0.999a
Le 05/05/2024 à 19:59, Jim Burns a écrit :
On 5/3/2024 4:31 PM, WM wrote:

If all could be counted to,
they would not remain after every counted number.
  From each number n which CAN be counted.to
for each number k which CAN be counted.to
more.than.k numbers which CAN be counted.to
can be reached immediately
from n to n+k+1
 None of these immediate more.than.k numbers remain
after every number n which CAN be counted.to.
Nevertheless almost all, namely ℵo, remain.
Regards, WM

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