Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 03. May 2024, 14:29:46
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <Ptjtrg5bq7okExK6YUFftbbPEkY@jntp>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
User-Agent : Nemo/0.999a
Le 01/05/2024 à 23:46, Moebius a écrit :
Am 30.04.2024 um 15:12 schrieb WM:
 
If n is before ω then n⋅2 is before ω. (*)
 That is not true.
 Wir haben mithin also gezeigt, dass "If n is before ω then n⋅2 is before ω" gilt. qed
Your proof holds for all natnumbers that can be found - a tiny initial segment of ℕ.
Every findable natnumber has ℵo natsuccessors. ==> Not all can be found.
All natural numbers have no natsuccessors. ==> There are more natnumbers than can be found.
But they can only be applied collectively.
 Regards, WM

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