Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x))= g(y) [1/2] Re: how

Liste des GroupesRevenir à s math 
Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x))= g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 03. May 2024, 14:41:24
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <UPxjnJcRrS1ahmV6Bew3duunQaA@jntp>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
User-Agent : Nemo/0.999a
Le 02/05/2024 à 01:32, Tom Bola a écrit :

I think that WM has a very fixed idea of the "world of math" which is fixed by nature and not a creation of culture in the mind of men
I don't know whether actual infinity is true. But if so, then all natural numbers can be subtracted from the set of all real numbers. ==> They have no successors which must remain. From all definable natnumbers however we know that they have ℵo successors. ==> Not all are definable. A huge, infinite subset is dark.
Regards, WM

Date Sujet#  Auteur
24 Mar 24 * V1414WM
24 Mar 24 +* Re: V20Chris M. Thomasson
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24 Mar 24 i   +* Re: V15Chris M. Thomasson
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28 Mar 24 i   i i i  `* Re: V3WM
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30 Mar 24 ii    i  i   `* Re: Contradiction of bijections as a measure for infinite sets1274Richard Damon
31 Mar 24 ii    i  i    `* Re: Contradiction of bijections as a measure for infinite sets1273WM
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