Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : Tom (at) *nospam* bolamail.etc (Tom Bola)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 22. Apr 2024, 20:44:17
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <v06emh$14dfg$1@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
User-Agent : 40tude_Dialog/2.0.15.1
Moebius schrieb:
Am 22.04.2024 um 21:36 schrieb Jim Burns:
However, deleting context courts confusion,
as you have noticed.
That's why I tend to use (i.e. stick to) standard notation and common
notions (in this context).
Folks and people are different, the more in societies with more plurality.
:-)