Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : franz.fritsche (at) *nospam* yahoo.de (Moebius)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 30. Apr 2024, 10:56:28
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <v0qf8d$2d1rq$1@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
Am 28.04.2024 um 19:29 schrieb Jim Burns:

4.
If n can be counted to from 0
then n⋅2 can be counted to _from n_
Since n⋅2 is just short for n+n (in my book).
n+n can be counted to from 0 the following way: 0 -> 1 -> 2 -> .. -> n and further n -> n+1 -> n+2 -> .. -> n+n (just like we already did when counting from 0 to n).
Hence

n⋅2 can be counted to from 0 _through n_
Indeed!
In other words,
"If n is a flying rainbow sparkle pony
then n⋅2 is a flying rainbow sparkle pony."

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