Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : invalid (at) *nospam* example.invalid (Moebius)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 11. May 2024, 04:32:09
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Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <v1morp$1r2cm$2@dont-email.me>
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Am 11.05.2024 um 01:44 schrieb Jim Burns:
 > I'm pretty sure we can derive induction from that.
Incidentally, I'm just studying some (early) papers concerning this question.
E. Zermelo, Sur les ensembles finis et le principe de l'induction complète (1909)
K Grelling, Die Axiome der Arithmetik mit besonderer Berücksichtigung der Beziehungen zur Mengenlehre (1910)
K Grelling, Mengenlehre (1924)
But all these considerations presuppose some sort of set theory.

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24 Mar 24 * V1414WM
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