Sujet : Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : FTR (at) *nospam* nomail.afraid.org (FromTheRafters)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 13. May 2024, 23:47:54
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Peripheral Visions
Message-ID : <v1u5at$3nqlm$1@dont-email.me>
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WM expressed precisely :
Le 10/05/2024 à 17:00, FromTheRafters a écrit :
WM explained :
>
Yes. But every n ∈ ℕ_def has ℵ₀ successors which never vanish by counting. They can be removed only collectively such that nothing of ℕ remains.
Wrong,
>
Try to remove all natural numbers individually from ℕ. Fail.
Because you cannot remove them -- *SETS DO NOT CHANGE*.
Maybe you can conceive of a *new set* which contains each, and every natural number by invoking a set of *all* natural numbers. Or you can imagine an unending sequence of finite sets and call it a potentially infinite collection. It doesn't mean any aleph_zero 'rest of them' exists where some finitely many were taken from N.