Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : chris.m.thomasson.1 (at) *nospam* gmail.com (Chris M. Thomasson)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 14. May 2024, 00:32:05
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <v1u7tm$3obie$1@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 5/13/2024 1:21 PM, WM wrote:
Le 10/05/2024 à 17:00, FromTheRafters a écrit :
WM explained :
 
Yes. But every n ∈ ℕ_def has ℵ₀ successors which never vanish by counting. They can be removed only collectively such that nothing of ℕ remains.
>
Wrong,
 Try to remove all natural numbers individually from ℕ. Fail.
Huh? ℕ is infinite in and of itself.

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