Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : acm (at) *nospam* muc.de (Alan Mackenzie)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 27. Oct 2024, 16:55:06
Autres entêtes
Organisation : muc.de e.V.
Message-ID : <vflnoq$l02$1@news.muc.de>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
User-Agent : tin/2.6.3-20231224 ("Banff") (FreeBSD/14.1-RELEASE-p3 (amd64))
WM <
wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> wrote:
On 26.10.2024 05:21, Jim Burns wrote:
The proof that all unit fractions can be defined
is to define them
as reciprocals of positive countable.to.from.0 numbers.
That describes all of them and only them.
No, you falsely assume that all natnumbers can be defined.
Wrong. Natural numbers are defined as those defined by the Peano
axioms. That is what we mean by "natural number". Anything which
"can't be defined" this way isn't a natural number.
[ .... ]
Regards, WM
-- Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).