Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)

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Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 28. Oct 2024, 20:55:19
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <vfoq77$14lcd$5@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
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On 28.10.2024 12:21, Richard Damon wrote:
On 10/28/24 6:30 AM, WM wrote:
On 27.10.2024 18:05, Moebius wrote:
Am 27.10.2024 um 17:07 schrieb WM:
>
After NUF(x') = 1
>
There is no x' e IR such that NUF(x') = 1.
>
There is NUF(0) = 0. NUF(1) > 0. Hence NUF increases. This cannot happen by more than single unitfractions with interruptions, according to mathematics:
∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 .

It can not happen AT FINITE VALUES, but can "between" them,
Yes, at undefinable values.

like just above 0, where it jumps from 0 to Aleph_0
Not at one point, definable or not.
Regards, W;

Date Sujet#  Auteur
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