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Yes,And their intersection is infinite.
if each end.segment is infinite
then each end.segment is infinite.
because all are
predecessors of an infinite endsegment.
== empty endsegment.That means it is valid for all endsegments.all fall out == empty
>
The trick here is that
the infinite set has no specified natural number (because all fall out at some endsegment)
According to set theory. ==> Set theory is wrong.but it is infiniteinfinite and empty
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