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On 1/24/25 4:41 AM, WM wrote:Give the first.On 23.01.2025 13:01, Richard Damon wrote:Sure it does,
>But There is no single UF(n) that equals N, because you can ony get there from the union of an infinite set of FISONs.>
The union of all FISONs does not cover ℕ. Otherwise Cantor's theorem would require the existence of a first necessary FISON. That is mathematics.
you just need to take the union of an infinite number of them.FISONs enumerate themselves. There is no infinite FISON and hence no infinite number of them.
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