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Le 04/04/2024 à 14:19, Richard Damon a écrit :Right, but that "Proper Subset" is considered as an independent item, not as just pieces of the original set.On 4/4/24 5:33 AM, WM wrote:"In mathematics, a set A is Dedekind-infinite (named after the German mathematician Richard Dedekind) if some proper subset B of A is equinumerous to A. Explicitly, this means that there exists a bijective function from A onto some proper subset B of A." Wikipedia.Le 03/04/2024 à 15:59, FromTheRafters a écrit :It doesn't, Bijections are always between two DISTINCT sets, not a set and a piece of itself thought of as a set.WM presented the following explanation :>Le 02/04/2024 à 17:51, Jim Burns a écrit :>On 4/2/2024 3:36 AM, WM wrote:>If your assumption leads to "no bijection",>
but there is a bijection,
then your assumption is wrong.
My trick proves that there is no bijection.
Or could you explain why first bijecting n and n/1 should destroy an existing bijection?
Your 'trick' only fails to demonstrate a bijection. Failing to demonstrate a bijection does not mean that there is no bijection, only that your 'trick' doesn't work to that end.
Explain why first bijecting n and n/1 should destroy an existing bijection!
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Regards, WM
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