Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 20. Apr 2024, 17:23:29
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <SMXuukb36RM2p0GDxOFCfgENLmE@jntp>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
User-Agent : Nemo/0.999a
Le 19/04/2024 à 21:16, Jim Burns a écrit :
On 4/19/2024 11:05 AM, WM wrote:

0, 1, 2, 3, ...,   w  = X
|  |  |  |  |||    |
0, 2, 4, 6, ..., w*2  = Y

I answer and you refuse to see it because
ω isn't what you (WM) want ω to be.
I assume that it is the first transfinite number, following directly upon all natural numbers. If you can't or won't understand that, you need not answer.
 
ω isn't in Y
Wrong. Cantor's sequence of ordinals shows that ω is amidst between 0 and ω*2. See Transfinity, https://www.hs-augsburg.de/~mueckenh/Transfinity/Transfinity/pdf, p.42. If ω is not in Y then at least nearby ordinals are in Y.
Regards, WM

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