Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [2/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [2/2] Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 20. Apr 2024, 17:57:46
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <PjgG9Mz5Diajkp1PVCfODKZ4lts@jntp>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
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Le 20/04/2024 à 18:40, Richard Damon a écrit :
On 4/20/24 12:31 PM, WM wrote:

Then that one directly before ω is not multiplied. Or it is not existing. But what exists directly before ω?
 But there isn't one "directly before" ω, as you don't seem to understand what the ... means. The ... contains a set with no upper bound.
What is before ω?
 The ... shows a sequence of a countably infinite number of digits, with no end. You pass it when you do a Transfinite step in your counting.
Cantor claims that all natural numbers can be passed by bijecting them with elements of coubtable sets in finite steps. Nothing remains untouched before ω.
Regards, WM

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24 Mar 24 * V1414WM
24 Mar 24 +* Re: V20Chris M. Thomasson
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