Sujet : Re: how
De : FTR (at) *nospam* nomail.afraid.org (FromTheRafters)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 20. Apr 2024, 18:42:12
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Peripheral Visions
Message-ID : <v00upr$3pm7b$1@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
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WM presented the following explanation :
Le 19/04/2024 à 22:57, Tom Bola a écrit :
Chris M. Thomasson schrieb:
Multiplying any natural number by two gives a natural number that is already in the set of all natural numbers.
WM knows that definition but he doesn't ACCEPT it in his own math since 30++ years (which he doesn't mention this difference) because he feels that the used logic in today's mathematics is very wrong.
>
I accept that, but it excludes the idea that ω follows upon all natural numbers with no gap in between. But this idea is what I presently investigate.
What is a gap in the ordinals?
Re: Contradiction of bijections as a measure for infinite sets
Re: how