Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : moebius (at) *nospam* example.invalid (Moebius)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 23. Apr 2024, 00:01:06
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <v06q7i$16spt$4@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
Am 22.04.2024 um 21:44 schrieb Tom Bola:
Moebius schrieb:
Am 22.04.2024 um 21:36 schrieb Jim Burns:
>
However, deleting context courts confusion,
as you have noticed.
>
That's why I tend to use (i.e. stick to) standard notation and common
notions (in this context).
 Folks and people are different, the more in societies with more plurality.
Agree. But, if I may say so, your idiosyncratic notation and notions make it difficult to follow your proofs and arguments.
Usually, mathematicians (and many other people) try to communicate their ideas as good as the can. I'm mean it's a common communication strategy (with the aim to be understood).
Just a comment.
Lit.: https://courses.media.mit.edu/2004spring/mas966/Peirce%201878%20Make%20Ideas%20Clear.pdf

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