Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : james.g.burns (at) *nospam* att.net (Jim Burns)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 23. Apr 2024, 02:03:43
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <d217aaed-0a1f-48cc-b146-6520a218d2f7@att.net>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 4/22/2024 8:12 PM, FromTheRafters wrote:
Moebius explained on 4/22/2024 :
Am 22.04.2024 um 23:03 schrieb Jim Burns:

When I tried (many times) to explain to WM
common notions in common notation,
what he read is not what I wrote,
not even if I wrote it a hundred times.
So, now I try to find uncommon ways to write them.
>
Yes, I understand your motivation (I think),
but -I'm sorry to say so- I don't think that you will succeeed. :-)
>
Ah, but it is the journey not the destination.
What he said!
| Nobody climbs mountains for scientific reasons.
| Science is used to raise money for the expeditions,
| but you really climb for the hell of it.
|
-- Sir Edmund Hillary

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