Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : FTR (at) *nospam* nomail.afraid.org (FromTheRafters)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 26. Apr 2024, 00:09:57
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Peripheral Visions
Message-ID : <v0ensa$38qkb$1@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
User-Agent : MesNews/1.08.06.00-gb
It happens that WM formulated :
Le 24/04/2024 à 21:42, Jim Burns a écrit :
On 4/24/2024 12:57 PM, WM wrote:
Le 23/04/2024 à 21:55, Jim Burns a écrit :
 
Arithmetic of the familiar.
>
Nevertheless it is wrong because
for every set {1, 2, 3, ..., n} doubling extends the set.
 Doubling doesn't extend it to or beyond ω
>
If all smaller numbers are doubled, then there is no place for the doubled numbers below ω.
No worries, there's always room at the hotel.

Date Sujet#  Auteur
24 Mar 24 * V1414WM
24 Mar 24 +* Re: V20Chris M. Thomasson
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31 Mar 24 ii    i  i    `* Re: Contradiction of bijections as a measure for infinite sets1273WM
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