Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 26. Apr 2024, 15:37:15
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <IQv_eZAxvsGJHptfmbSlT2BcBeE@jntp>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
User-Agent : Nemo/0.999a
Le 26/04/2024 à 01:11, Jim Burns a écrit :
On 4/25/2024 4:03 PM, WM wrote:

If all smaller numbers are doubled,
then there is no place for
the doubled numbers below ω.
 If n is below ω
then n can be counted to from 0
then n⋅2 can be counted to from n
That is true for definable numbers but not for the last numbers before ω.

I defined a map for which ω+3 ⟼ 2⋅3
To my knowledge you did not. And if so, why did you?
Regards, WM

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