Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : chris.m.thomasson.1 (at) *nospam* gmail.com (Chris M. Thomasson)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 26. Apr 2024, 20:41:28
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <v0h018$3sdvg$1@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 4/26/2024 7:37 AM, WM wrote:
Le 26/04/2024 à 01:11, Jim Burns a écrit :
On 4/25/2024 4:03 PM, WM wrote:
 
If all smaller numbers are doubled,
then there is no place for
the doubled numbers below ω.
>
If n is below ω
then n can be counted to from 0
then n⋅2 can be counted to from n
 That is true for definable numbers but not for the last numbers before ω.
There is no such thing as the last numbers _before_ ω...

 
I defined a map for which ω+3 ⟼ 2⋅3
 To my knowledge you did not. And if so, why did you?
 Regards, WM

Date Sujet#  Auteur
24 Mar 24 * V1414WM
24 Mar 24 +* Re: V20Chris M. Thomasson
24 Mar 24 i`* Re: V19WM
24 Mar 24 i `* Re: V18Chris M. Thomasson
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