Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : franz.fritsche (at) *nospam* yahoo.de (Moebius)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 30. Apr 2024, 14:39:56
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <v0qsbc$2fqbl$2@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
Am 30.04.2024 um 15:12 schrieb WM:
{1, 2, 3, ..., ω}*2
= ({1, 2, 3, ...} u {ω})*2
= {1, 2, 3, ...}*2 u {ω}*2
= {2, 4, 6, ...} u {ω*2} (where {2, 4, 6, ...} = G c IN)
results in {2, 4, 6, ..., ω*2}
Exactly.
Then it's clear that
ω or ω+1 is [NOT] amidst [...]
Hint: ω !e {2, 4, 6, ..., ω*2} and ω+1 !e {2, 4, 6, ..., ω*2}.
Actually, the only infinite ordinal in {2, 4, 6, ..., ω*2} is ω*2.