Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 03. May 2024, 14:35:34
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
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Le 02/05/2024 à 00:46, Jim Burns a écrit :
I think it's possible that
WM thinks that
a mathematical claim is mathematical because
of the great certainty with which it is expressed.
Do you know that every definable natnumber has ℵo natural successors?
Do you know that all natural numbers can be manipulated together, for instance can be removed from the set of all fractions?
Then no natural number remains, let alone ℵo.
Can you see the huge, infinite difference?
Intellectual inertia may prevent that. It is a pity.
Regards, WM