Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

On 5/3/2024 4:31 PM, WM wrote:

Le 03/05/2024 à 21:32, Jim Burns a écrit :

Your description of ω is a description of
a number which CAN be counted.to from 0

>
Not at all! You miunderstand or are lying.

It is the idea that the natural numbers
reach immediately from 0 until ω If every natural nunmber is increased by 1,
then the set is shifted
from {1, 2, 3, ...} to {2, 3, 4, ..., ω}.

If
every natural number ==
every number which can be counted.to from 0
is increased by 1,
and
the increase by 1 of one of those natural numbers ψ
is ω
ie, if ψ+1 = ω
then
by counting to ψ and counting 1 more,
one can count to ω
And then
ω as you describe it  CAN be counted.to from 0
You are treating ω as though
ω  is merely humongous.
ω is infinite, which is different from humongous.