Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x))= g(y) [1/2] Re: how

On 5/3/24 9:41 AM, WM wrote:

Le 02/05/2024 à 01:32, Tom Bola a écrit :
 

I think that WM has a very fixed idea of the "world of math" which is fixed by nature and not a creation of culture in the mind of men

 I don't know whether actual infinity is true. But if so, then all natural numbers can be subtracted from the set of all real numbers. ==> They have no successors which must remain.
 From all definable natnumbers however we know that they have ℵo successors. ==> Not all are definable. A huge, infinite subset is dark.
 Regards, WM

But the problem is you are using logic that can't actually have the set of Natural Numbers, or correctly process that set, so nothing you described is actually able to be done in your logic.
You THINK you can subtract your set of "definable" numbers from the Natual Numbers in your system, but your system can't actually have the Natural Numbers, so you actually can't.